Please source this opinion that "I'm stating known U.S. Constitutional Law. Section 9 has always been were Congress' limits were explained." I cannot find any online resource which takes this position and almost everything I'm finding states that Article I Section 9 "No bill of attainder, ex post facto law, or law denying or impairing the right of property in negro slaves shall be passed." clearly denies the rights of states to make laws "denying or impairing the right of property in negro slaves". Sorry David, there is no ambiguity in this clause, nor is there any legal precedence for state law overriding Confederate Constitutional law. Of course, if they didn't agree with the Confederate Constitution and this law, they could always secede.

I do not agree, nor does the majority of "the internet" with your conclusion that Section 9 was only limiting the powers of the congress. Of course, internet sources can be unreliable, so if you can find a real world example where a Confederate state or state attempting to enter the Confederacy, asked to enter as a "free state" had laws that limited slaveowners to only enter their state temporarily with their slave property, I will admit my error.

Jim