"The Constitution gives no power to the Federal Government to resist the withdrawal of representation by a State, and it could never have intended to enforce taxation without representation".
What stuck in my mind was the "representation by a State" phrase. According to the U.S. Constitution the members of the House of Representatives are elected by the People of the Several States- therefore the House is to represent the common people of the States. Before the adoption of the 17th Amemdment, the members of the Senate were "chosen by the [State] Legislature thereof" thereby making that body of the Congress representing the State governments that placed them there- today, just like the House of Representatives, the members of the Senate represent the common people of the States.
Are the States actually represented in the United State Congress as the founding fathers intended--represented by at least one representative of the people and two representatives by State?
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David Upton